Israel and Judah." We are sure that God tempts no man to evil, James i. 13. Should it be said God permitted satan, a fallen angel to do it, we ask where is the proof of this? The passage affords none, except the gratuitous sense affixed to the term satan, which we have seen signifies an adversary. To say satan here means a fallen angel, is not only begging the question, but it is opposed to all former scripture usage of this word.

4th. When David's heart smote him for his sin, he imputes no part of the blame either to satan or God. No, he says "I have sinned greatly in that which I have done." 1 Chron. xxi. 17. Nor do we find that satan suffers any part of the punishment or is threatened with any. Others suffered severely for his sin, but if satan was the chief cause of all this evil, why does he escape all punishment? David does not plead his influence in mitigation of his offence, or the punishment it incurred. But if either God, or a fallen angel did move David to commit this sin why does no blame attach to them?

5th. But some orthodox critics declare, that there is no reference to such a being in this passage. Parkhurst says on this word; "I would understand it, 1 Chron. xxi. 1. of a human adversary: compare 2 Sam. xxiv. 1. which perhaps may be best rendered; and again the anger of Jehovah was kindled against Israel, and David was moved against them by (one's) saying, or rather indefinitely, and one moved David against them saying, go number Israel and Judah." See Dr. Chandler's Life of king David. Farmer, on Christ's Temptation, quoting from Dr. Chandler, says, "for, speaking of David's numbering the peaple, he says, if the Devil had bid him do it, I suppose he might have seen the cloven foot and would scarce have followed the measure for the sake of the adviser."

6th. I would simply suggest it for consideration if David was not led to number the people from some evil passion or desire in his own mind, and that it is called satan. It is evident, that this is the sense of the term in the first place it occurs, above considered. That men's evil lusts and passions are afterwards called satan in Scripture will be shown in its place. This view is in unison with the way God says men are tempted to evil. James i. 14. Satan we have seen means an adversary. All acts of an adversary arise from some opposing principle or desire in the mind. It is perfectly natural, and we shall see it is scriptural, to call the opposing principles or passions of men by the name satan. But scripture usage of this term will permit us to say, that satan who provoked David to number Israel, was either the evil desires of his own mind, or some human adversary. Previous and I think also after scripture usage of this word forbid us thinking that the satan who provoked David was a fallen angel. Nor would it be very strange that the anger of Jehovah was in this passage the satan referred to, seeing an angel of Jehovah is evidently called satan in a preceding passage. This is the view which some take of this passage.

Ezra iv. 6. "And in the reign of Ahasuerus, in the beginning of his reign, wrote they unto him an accusation against the inhabitants of Judah and Jerusalem." In this text the word satan is a noun feminine and is rendered accusation.. Notice, it is not the persons who wrote who are called satan, but the thing written. The persons who wrote, were, properly speaking, the satan or adversary, yet it is the written document, sent by them to Ahasuerus, which is called satan, for it was not them but it, which was to appear before the king as the accuser or adversary of the Jews. Who the persons were we learn from verses 1-6. "The people of the land weakened the hands

of the people of Judah and troubled them in building. And hired counsellors against them to frustrate their purpose, all the days of Cyrus, king of Persia." But we are told that "in the reign of Ahasuerus in the beginning of his reign," they wrote to him, and this writing is called a satan or accusation. The term satan then, so far from being the appropriate name of a fallen angel, is applied to men's evil passions, the angel of Jehovah, human beings, and here to a piece of writing. But not as yet, do we find it once used, to designate an angel who fell from heaven.

Job i. 6-13. and ii. 1-11. comes next to be considered. To save room, I forbear transcribing these two passages. The reader can easily turn to his Bible and read them. The term satan occurs here fourteen times, but is uniformly left untranslated. It is rendered in the Seventy's version by the word diabolos, devil. Here, say many good people, satan must mean a fallen angel" for the name, the things said to be done, and all the circumstances mentioned, go to prove his existence and wicked character." We frankly admit, that these two passages, have more the appearance of teaching this doctrine, than all the other texts usually adduced as proof of it. We even

admit, that if the devil of Christians is taught in the Bible, this is the place. We hope then, that our friends are willing to abide by the result, whatever devil or satan this turns out to be.

I have examined these two chapters, with all the care and attention I could command, and shall submit the result for candid consideration, by stating and answering the following questions.

1st. Who wrote the book of Job? Answer; about this there are various opinions. Some have ascribed it to Job himself. Others to Elihu or one of the prophets. The general opinion has been, that it was written by Moses, and composed from materials left

by Job or his friends in the Syriac or Arabic language. See Gray's Key.

2d. When was the book of Job written? Answer; It is generally agreed, that it was written sometime between the death of Joseph, and the delivery of the law at Sinai. It is perhaps impossible for us to fix its precise date. Nor is this at all important, as to the object of our present investigation. Those who wish to see the various opinions entertained concerning this, may consult Gray's Key, pp. 229-258.

3d. Was Job a real, or only a fictitious person? Answer; Some have held the latter opinion. I am strongly inclined to think that Job was a real person for in after parts of Scripture, his afflictions are represented as real afflictions, and his patience under them as real patience, and as an example to us. He is spoken of just as Noah and Daniel are. One of the sons of Issachar, is called Job, Gen. xlvi. 13. and was one of Jacob's grand-children, who went down with him into Egypt. If this was the person, who forms the subject of the book of Job, it fixes, generally the period in which he lived.

4th. Is every thing in the book of Job to be understood literally, or is any allowance to be made for embellishment or allegorical representation? Answer; Although I think Job was a real person, yet many things are set forth in the way of allegory. For example, God is not only represented as talking with satan, but as influenced by him to bring accumulated sufferings on a just man without cause. These are brought in such rapid succession too, as seldom occurs among men. Besides; there seems something studied and artificial, that only one servant should make his escape, to tell Job what had happened, and before he is well done, only one more makes his escape to bring additional evil tidings. And just as he closes his speech, a third also in like manner, and a

fourth in the same way arrives, and closes the first scene of Job's calamities. Besides; throughout the whole book, there is something very studied and artificial in the set speeches of Job and his friends, and even of God himself at the close. The writer gives Job just double the number of camels, oxen, sheep, and asses, without one more or less, which he had at the beginning. And he gives him precisely the same number of sons, and the same number of daughters, as at the first. And finally leaves Job in a more prosperous condition than before his afflictions came upon him, with a long life of enjoying his prosperity. The book concludes without any notice of the removal of Job's disease, which by some is called elephantiasis, and was deemed by physicians incurable. Had the whole been matter of fact, and nothing in it allegorical, we hardly think such artificial statements could have been given.

5th. In what part of the world, were the scenes of the book of Job laid? Answer; we are told chap. i. 1. that "there was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job." That this was in Chaldea or its neighborhood, is almost certain, for the Chaldean robbers or freebooters are said to have carried away Job's flocks, chap. 1. 17. Dr. Parish in his Sacred Geography, says "Bochart and the authors of the Universal History, and some others place the land of Uz far south from Damascus, and almost directly east from the tribe of Reuben, and west from Chaldea, in Arabia Deserta." But see his work on the word Uz for other opinions about this. See also Gray's Key, as referred to above. It is not of essential importance, to determine the precise spot where Job lived. It is sufficient for our purpose that he lived in

the east. See Job i. 3.

6th. What were the religious opinions of the people where the scenes of the book are laid? Answer;